Question for those of you who are realtors - a tale of 2 homes
Posted: Wed Dec 23, 2015 5:11 pm
I have a question about property tax assessment practices in Texas. Back in California, the assessed value of your home is (or was at the time, unless they've changed things) based on the last purchase price, and the process for raising taxes was convoluted and difficult enough that they don't significantly change over the life of your home's ownership. The reason is that tax rate increases are a political matter rather than an administrative matter, and if you jack up tax rates too quickly, you loose elections. I bought my home in Pasadena, California for $170K and sold it 7 years later for $530K. (I'm not some kind of real estate genius or anything. I was just blessed that my job-related move to Texas happened to coincide with the peak of a real estate bubble, just before it burst.) Despite that significant appreciation over 7 years, my property taxes did not change by more than maybe $100 from what they were when I bought it. Because of the political considerations, gov't can fiddle with the tax rates a little bit, but they can't reassess the home's value until the next time it either sells or goes through probate. So even though I sold a $530K home, I was paying taxes on a $170K home until I sold it, and the tax rate didn't change that much in the intervening 7 years.
So, I realize that the tax offices in Texas are free to raise your property taxes much more frequently, and in larger increments than in California, but upon looking at the tax history for my home here in Grapevine and a friend's home in Colleyville, compared to the assessed value of both homes, it appears that the assessed values have little correlation to the actual values, and that is where the two homes come in.......
My home here in Grapevine was $220,000 when we bought it in 2006, but the $4,439 in property tax for that year was on an assessed value of 201,000. Last year, 2014, we paid $5,732 in tax on an assessed value of $259K, which was also lower than the actual market value at that time. THIS year, we are looking at $6,007 on an assessed value of $284,900, for a house I can sell today for $302K without breaking a sweat. And since I own the house outright, it's all profit. So one of the things that I notice is that, even though the taxes have gone up $1,568 per year in the 9 years we've owned the home, the tax increases have not kept pace with the actual home valuation.
The second home is a friend's home who is considering putting his house on the market. His house is in Colleyville - about 10 minutes from mine. His house is within less than 100 square feet of mine in size (mine is the very slightly larger house, but we're just two people living in it now, and I could lose 100 sq ft and not even notice it). However, my lot size is only 9,330 sq ft, while his is 38,000 sq ft (just shy of a full acre). Now, I realize that some towns/neighborhoods are more desirable than others, and that can affect the appraised value of a home, but in our cases, both homes are located in desirable neighborhoods in desirable cities, in the same county, and in the same school district. Can someone explain to me why the appraised value of my friend's home in Colleyville (same county, and same school district as my home), which he bought in August 2015 for $361K had a 2014 tax bill of only $4,811, compared to my 2014 tax bill of $5,732?
Help me to understand this.
So, I realize that the tax offices in Texas are free to raise your property taxes much more frequently, and in larger increments than in California, but upon looking at the tax history for my home here in Grapevine and a friend's home in Colleyville, compared to the assessed value of both homes, it appears that the assessed values have little correlation to the actual values, and that is where the two homes come in.......
My home here in Grapevine was $220,000 when we bought it in 2006, but the $4,439 in property tax for that year was on an assessed value of 201,000. Last year, 2014, we paid $5,732 in tax on an assessed value of $259K, which was also lower than the actual market value at that time. THIS year, we are looking at $6,007 on an assessed value of $284,900, for a house I can sell today for $302K without breaking a sweat. And since I own the house outright, it's all profit. So one of the things that I notice is that, even though the taxes have gone up $1,568 per year in the 9 years we've owned the home, the tax increases have not kept pace with the actual home valuation.
The second home is a friend's home who is considering putting his house on the market. His house is in Colleyville - about 10 minutes from mine. His house is within less than 100 square feet of mine in size (mine is the very slightly larger house, but we're just two people living in it now, and I could lose 100 sq ft and not even notice it). However, my lot size is only 9,330 sq ft, while his is 38,000 sq ft (just shy of a full acre). Now, I realize that some towns/neighborhoods are more desirable than others, and that can affect the appraised value of a home, but in our cases, both homes are located in desirable neighborhoods in desirable cities, in the same county, and in the same school district. Can someone explain to me why the appraised value of my friend's home in Colleyville (same county, and same school district as my home), which he bought in August 2015 for $361K had a 2014 tax bill of only $4,811, compared to my 2014 tax bill of $5,732?
Help me to understand this.